what caused any of those declines? could those events happen in the milk market? were any of those markets as ancient as milk? how else might they differ?
The events were that demand decreased. Yes, demand could decrease in the milk market. Whether or not it will is a separate question. They are different in that the market decreased in the former and not the latter.
how do you suppose we could decrease demand? do you have some method to accomplish this?
edit:what is the metric by which you gauge demand? price? volume sold? volume produced? futures markets? I just don't think this is a well formulated test. but if you come up with one, please let me know.
to be clear, you have made an assertion without evidence. a claim made without evidence can be dismissed without evidence. I don't believe you, and no one should.
all the people involved in those markets were making decisions distinct from the people making decisions in the milk market. I dont think we can find anything so conclusive.
Dosen't matter if it happens or not. It's it's not required to prove the case because of the overwhelming evidence in every other market where it has. The idea that something will be produced at a loss forever just because you can't accept that it won't is troll-level ludicrous. So, hats of to you for that bait, I guess.
I'm not going to believe something without evidence. your hand waiving is not evidence, and historical data about irrational actors is not predictive about the future of those same markets. it can't be reliable evidence about the future in a separate market.