Russell Brand allegations question from non American
Russell Brand allegations question from non American
Google-owned company says move is due to it ‘violating our creator responsibility policy’
I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn't help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.
Don't get me wrong I don't know much about the guy and what he did or didn't do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.
But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I'd be happy if someone could explain me.
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Does “de-monetization” simply mean Google isn’t paying him, or that they’re removing all ads (and revenue for themselves) from his videos?
I think it means they're just not paying him. I believe they still play ads on demonetized videos.
There is a difference if the creator demonetizes a video, which I believe removes the ads.
For smaller channels that haven't reached the threshold of monetization, they still have ads on their videos.
I'm including pre-roll ads in my calculation here.
So basically Google is “taking a stand” by increasing the amount of money they make off of his content, lol.
Yep that's the one.
Both.