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Can you get to whatever you think is your point sometimes soon?
Sorry for the delay- I didn't get a notification for some reason.
The point is that the violently insane and young children are not allowed to keep and bear arms because they may harm others and because they're incompetent, respectively. You may still consider them part of the militia in some philosophical sense, but practically, they don't have the right described in the second amendment.
If we can restrict a child's right to keep and bear arms because they are incompetent, then the precedent exists to do the same for adults with no training.
If we can restrict a violently insane person's right to keep and bear arms because they may harm others, then the precedent exists to do the same for sane people who may harm others.
Obviously, adults are not children, and they are mostly sane. However, they can still be just as incompetent, and they can still accidentally kill others during arguments. The analogy holds.
No military in the world would deploy a fighting force without mandatory weapons training, and a militia is not "well regulated" if it's members don't know how to use their weapons.
we can restrict a child's right to keep and bear arms because they are incompetent, then the precedent exists to do the same for adults with no training.
Ah, I see the issue. You're using the word "incompetent" to describe a skill level. I am using the word incompetent to describe the legal capacity to comprehend the consequences of one's own actions.
A child with olympic class training and shooting skills, who regularly outshoots police and military sharpshooters in competitions, is still a ward of their parents; they are still deemed unqualified to manage their own affairs. They are still presumed incapable of contemplating the consequences of their own actions, and must be supervised by a parent or guardian. This presumption does not allow them to independently keep and bear arms, yes. (They do have the right to keep and bear arms, contingent on the approval of their guardian: their guardian can arbitrarily deny them access to guns; the state cannot)
But, this same presumption also denies them the right to vote, and independent exercise of all other rights and privileges. That'd what "wardship" means. The state cannot interfere with their rights, but their guardian can. (Britney was made a ward of her father long after she became an adult. Her father had legal control of her finances. The government did not have the right to keep her from buying things, but her guardian did.)
At whatever point you end their wardship and statutorily grant them independence from their former guardians, you also grant them independent exercise of their right to keep and bear arms.
If we can restrict a violently insane person's right to keep and bear arms because they may harm others, then the precedent exists to do the same for sane people who may harm others.
A court was involved in depriving the "insane" person of life, liberty, or property. They were formally accused, tried, convicted, and sentenced in a court of law, while enjoying all the rights of the accused, including the presumption of innocence.
Courts have previously found that certain people should be jailed indefinitely, or even killed. Those findings against those particular people are not "precedent" for arbitrarily jailing or executing the general population.
Have you taken a basic civics course? Your proposals directly conflict with the basic, fundamental principles of our form of government.
I am asking, again, for the reason why laws exist, and again, you're describing the laws as they currently exist. Why is it necessary for children to have wards? Why do courts restrict the right to bear arms for violent criminals and the insane?
If all children were born with the knowledge and experience of adults, we would have no concept of ward and guardian.
The law follows from the reason, not the other way around.
I have given you the reason: children are presumed incapable of understanding the consequences of their actions. That is a rebuttable presumption, in cases of emancipated minors or certain heinous criminal charges.
Adults are presumed capable of understanding the consequences of their actions. That presumption is also rebuttable, in cases of severe mental deficiency.
Rebutting these presumptions is done in a court of law, not the legislature.
Assuming the opposite (that children are capable, and adults incapable) violates all sorts of egalitarian principles. It's a non-starter.
A militia with no training and no weapons qualification is not a well regulated militia. I've provided examples of existing cases in which we limit the rights of the incompetent until they become competent.
It follows that the right to keep and bear arms is not absolute, and required training before owning and operating a weapon is a reasonable constraint on that right.
I've provided examples of existing cases in which we limit the rights of the incompetent until they become competent.
No you haven't. You've conflated "skill level" with "ability to comprehend the consequences of one's actions". I called you out on this a few comments up the chain, but you are continuing to make the same error.
Let's talk about the insane criminal you discussed earlier. Let's say that before he was declared insane, he was a Marine sniper. Put a rifle in his hands, and he could hit a running deer at 500 yards, or an enemy's skull at 2000. But, he developed schizophrenia, climbed a clock tower, and started shooting at the figments of his imagination. Extraordinary "competent" marksman, completely "incompetent" citizen. His ownership of firearms is deeply problematic, because he does not comprehend the consequences of his actions. The court may find him guilty, or it may find him not guilty by reason of insanity. Either way, they aren't taking his guns because he is unskilled in their operation; he's losing them because he does not comprehend the consequences of his actions.
Hellen Keller was blind and deaf. She needed considerable assistance in performing routine, daily tasks. She had absolutely no skill with a firearm. But she was not mentally deficient. She was quite intelligent, a prolific author. Completely "incompetent" as a marksman, but a perfectly "competent" citizen, her ownership of firearms is unproblematic. She may not have been able to hit the side of a barn unless she was inside it, but she could have owned and managed a gun store if she had wanted to. Hellen Keller would not be stripped of her gun rights, because she remained capable of comprehending the consequences of her actions.
The insane criminal was intended to be an example of an adult without the right to bear arms, not an example of incompetence. The example intended to illustrate incompetence was the one of the children, and I think it still stands. The difference between a child who doesn't understand the consequences of their actions and an adult who does, is one of experience- in everything, rather than some specific thing. And obviously, even particular children who have extensive experience are still constrained by the law, because it's a blunt instrument.
So I'll rephrase:
A militia with no training and no weapons qualification is not a well regulated militia. I’ve provided an example in which we limit the rights of the incompetent until they become competent. It follows that the right to keep and bear arms is not absolute, and required training before owning and operating a weapon is a reasonable constraint on that right.
The insane criminal was intended to be an example of an adult without the right to bear arms, not an example of incompetence.
The insane criminal was deprived of "life liberty or property" by the courts, not the legislature. They were accused, prosecuted, convicted, and sentenced to being stripped of their right to keep and bear arms, among other punishments and sanctions.
The example intended to illustrate incompetence was the one of the children, and I think it still stands.
I have repeatedly reminded you that the child does, indeed, have the right to keep and bear arms; that the state does not strip that right from the child. The state is not the entity depriving the child of the right to keep and bear arms. The child's guardian is the one ultimately determining whether the child may or may not exercise that right.
The state cannot prohibit a guardian from taking their ward to a gun range and teaching them to shoot, for example. The closest they can come is requiring the guardian to ensure the safety of the ward, but that requirement can be met without a total deprivation of the right to keep and bear arms.
Your "child" example fails because it is not the state infringing on the right, but the parent.
required training before owning and operating a weapon is a reasonable constraint on that right.
The only way you can permissibly infringe on the right to keep and bear arms is through Due Process. You can achieve this under our current constitutional provisions as follows:
- Mandate militia training under Article I.
- Mandate suspension of the right to keep and bear arms as a sentence for violating the training mandate.
- Adequately provide such training.
- Prosecute and convict anyone who unreasonably violates the militia training mandate.
The untrained individual does not lose their right to keep and bear arms until they are convicted of not attending the mandated militia training.
If you want to be able to prosecute someone for carrying without having been trained, you will need to amend the constitution.
A militia with no training and no weapons qualification is not a well regulated militia. I’ve provided an example in which we (we being some combination of the state and guardian) limit the rights of the incompetent until they become competent. It follows that the right to keep and bear arms is not absolute, and required training before owning and operating a weapon is a reasonable constraint on that right.
I’ve provided an example in which we (we being some combination of the state and guardian)
Agreed, but that only helps you if the powers of the guardian transfer to the state once the wardship is dissolved. But they don't. They transfer to the ward. The state never held the power to infringe on the ward's rights to keep and bear arms. Only the guardian had that power, and that power is transferred to the (former) ward upon dissolution of the wardship. The guardian held the power to determine if and when the ward will exercise their right to keep and bear arms. The former ward is now the person with that power, not the state.
The "guardian" of an adult is not the state. The "guardian" of an adult is the adult themselves.
You have a second problem, which I have mentioned multiple times but you have not yet seemed to have grasped. If you want to impose a training requirement for gun ownership, it will be a legislative act. None of the prohibited persons you have discussed have been deprived of their rights through a legislative act. The criminals and the insane have been stripped of their rights by the courts, not the legislature. "The state" (prosecutor) was forced to overcome all the rights of the accused and prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the accused is not capable of handling a weapon safely before a judge can justify depriving the accused of the right to keep and bear arms.
The constitution explicitly permits the courts to infringe on "life, liberty, and property" rights, and regulates the circumstances under which it can do that. The constitution does not grant that same power to the legislature.
You will need a constitutional amendment to proceed. How would you write that amendment?
I’ve provided an example in which we (we being some combination of the state and guardian) limit the rights of the incompetent until they become competent.
Please rewrite this sentence without using any form of the word "competent". You have consistently conflated two separate meanings of the word. You have demonstrated no comprehension of the distinction between these two senses. One of those two meanings is relevant to the deprivation of rights, the other is completely irrelevant, as I have explained several times before. Before continuing with this discussion, I will need you to rewrite that sentence in such a manner as to be able to distinguish between the two meanings of "competent".